Free AMRT Practice Test
An IICRC AMRT practice test with 200+ questions covering the mold remediation standard of care described in the ANSI/IICRC S520. Pick Study Mode for instant explanations, Exam Simulator for a timed full-length dry run, or Topic Quiz to drill weak areas. Free preview, no card required.
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Can I take a free AMRT practice test without signing up?
Yes — the 20 questions below run right here with no account and no card. They are written from the topics on the AMRT exam, and every answer comes with the reasoning behind it. The IICRC sets the number of questions, the time limit and the passing score for the real exam — confirm current details when you register at iicrc.org.
1. Under the ANSI/IICRC S520, what defines a Condition 2 environment?
2. Active mold growth on the back of drywall under a long-term leak is classified as:
3. What is the primary principle of mold remediation under the S520?
4. Why is a mold containment held under negative pressure?
5. What efficiency defines a true HEPA filter?
6. A containment measures 20 ft × 15 ft with 8 ft ceilings. At a target of 4 ACH, what airflow is required?
7. What is the assigned protection factor (APF) of a properly fit-tested full-face APR?
8. Which growth factor can a remediator most practically control?
9. Who should ideally perform post-remediation verification?
10. Which statement about biocides is correct under the S520?
11. What must happen before a remediated area is rebuilt?
12. Full containment differs from limited containment mainly by:
13. What is the legal status of the ANSI/IICRC S520?
14. Which record is most valuable when a mold job is later disputed?
15. Under OSHA 29 CFR 1910.134, a tight-fitting respirator requires:
16. A musty odor in a visually clean space most likely indicates:
17. Porous material with Condition 3 growth should generally be:
18. In a standard, the word 'shall' indicates:
19. Category 3 water contamination changes a mold job mainly by:
20. Which activity should NOT be performed by the remediation contractor on the same job?
What do real AMRT exam questions and answers look like?
These ten are formatted the way the exam asks them — scenario first, one best answer. Click "Show answer" to see the S520 reasoning instead of just the letter.
21. Why should negative air machines be sized using loaded-filter CFM?
- A. Because loaded filters move more air
- B. Because airflow drops as filters load with debris
- C. Because manufacturers overstate motor wattage
- D. Because ACH targets fall during a job
22. Critical barriers are used to:
- A. Support the poly walls of a containment
- B. Seal openings such as doors, vents and penetrations
- C. Separate clean tools from dirty tools
- D. Mark the boundary of the work area for occupants
23. Where should PPE be removed at the end of a shift in full containment?
- A. Outside the building
- B. In the decontamination chamber
- C. At the truck
- D. Anywhere inside the work area
24. Why does the S520 treat all mold growth as requiring removal regardless of species?
- A. Because species identification is impossible
- B. Because all growth is a potential health hazard and removal is the standard response
- C. Because labs cannot test for most genera
- D. Because insurers require species testing
25. The first element of post-remediation verification is:
- A. Air sampling
- B. A visual inspection showing no visible growth, debris or moisture
- C. Surface tape lifts
- D. A signed customer satisfaction form
26. The most reliable way to confirm a wall cavity is dry before closing it is:
- A. Touching the surface
- B. Taking moisture meter readings and comparing them to a dry standard
- C. Waiting 72 hours after removal
- D. Checking relative humidity in the room
27. Who is responsible for writing a remediation protocol on a larger project?
- A. The remediation contractor
- B. The indoor environmental professional
- C. The insurance adjuster
- D. The property manager
28. Exhausting a negative air machine outdoors rather than into the building:
- A. Reduces the ACH inside containment
- B. Helps maintain negative pressure and removes filtered air from the structure
- C. Is prohibited under the S520
- D. Eliminates the need for HEPA filtration
29. Occupant notification on a mold project is primarily a matter of:
- A. Marketing
- B. Health, safety and professional responsibility
- C. Insurance billing
- D. Local zoning
30. A technician finds visible growth on 6 ft² of bathroom drywall. The most appropriate first step is:
- A. Begin demolition immediately
- B. Identify and correct the moisture source, then set containment before disturbing growth
- C. Fog the room with an antimicrobial
- D. Run an air scrubber for 24 hours and re-inspect
All 30 free AMRT practice questions with answers
The same 30 questions in a plain list, with the correct answer and explanation under each one.
- A. Normal fungal ecology comparable to a clean building
- B. Settled spores or fragments dispersed from a Condition 3 area, with no actual growth
- C. An indoor environment with actual, active mold growth
- D. Any building that has had a past water intrusion
Answer: B. Settled spores or fragments dispersed from a Condition 3 area, with no actual growth
Condition 1 is normal fungal ecology, Condition 2 is settled spores or fragments without active growth, and Condition 3 is actual mold growth. Remediation returns a Condition 2 or 3 space to Condition 1.
- A. Condition 1
- B. Condition 2
- C. Condition 3
- D. Condition 4
Answer: C. Condition 3
Condition 3 is actual mold growth. Porous materials with Condition 3 growth are generally removed, because source removal — not killing in place — is the governing principle.
- A. Apply enough biocide to kill all mold in place
- B. Physically remove the mold contamination
- C. Seal contaminated materials behind new drywall
- D. Ventilate until spore counts drop
Answer: B. Physically remove the mold contamination
Remediation is achieved by physically removing contamination. Dead spores and fragments remain allergenic, so killing mold in place does not remediate the building.
- A. To speed up drying of the structure
- B. To keep airborne spores from escaping into clean spaces
- C. To lower the temperature inside the work area
- D. To improve biocide effectiveness
Answer: B. To keep airborne spores from escaping into clean spaces
Negative pressure makes air flow from clean areas into the containment, where it is exhausted through HEPA filtration — preventing cross-contamination while growth is disturbed.
- A. 85% of particles at 1.0 micron
- B. 99.97% of particles at 0.3 micron
- C. 95% of particles at 5.0 micron
- D. 99.99% of particles at 3.0 micron
Answer: B. 99.97% of particles at 0.3 micron
HEPA filters capture at least 99.97% of particles at 0.3 micron, the most-penetrating particle size. Negative air machines and remediation vacuums rely on it.
- A. 80 CFM
- B. 160 CFM
- C. 320 CFM
- D. 600 CFM
Answer: B. 160 CFM
Volume = 20 × 15 × 8 = 2,400 ft³. Required CFM = (2,400 × 4) ÷ 60 = 160 CFM. Rate your machines at loaded-filter CFM, not clean-filter.
- A. APF 5
- B. APF 10
- C. APF 50
- D. APF 1000
Answer: C. APF 50
N95 and half-face elastomeric respirators are APF 10; a full-face air-purifying respirator is APF 50. PAPRs go higher. Tight-fitting respirators require fit testing and medical clearance.
- A. Oxygen
- B. Temperature
- C. Moisture
- D. Spores in the air
Answer: C. Moisture
Spores are everywhere and food sources exist in every building, so moisture control is the practical key to both remediation and preventing regrowth.
- A. The remediation contractor who did the work
- B. An independent indoor environmental professional
- C. The building owner
- D. Any technician on the crew
Answer: B. An independent indoor environmental professional
An independent IEP avoids the conflict of interest of grading your own work. PRV pairs a visual inspection with any agreed sampling before containment comes down.
- A. Biocides replace physical removal when applied at label strength
- B. Biocides are not a substitute for physical removal of contamination
- C. Biocides must be applied to every mold job
- D. Biocides eliminate the need for containment
Answer: B. Biocides are not a substitute for physical removal of contamination
Antimicrobials have a limited supporting role and must be used per label. They never replace source removal, because dead spores remain allergenic.
- A. The containment is removed and the area repainted
- B. The moisture source is corrected and materials are dry
- C. A biocide fog is applied to the cavity
- D. The HVAC system is run at full speed for 24 hours
Answer: B. The moisture source is corrected and materials are dry
Remediation without correcting the moisture source is temporary. Materials must be verified dry before closing the assembly, or the growth returns.
- A. Using thicker poly sheeting
- B. Adding a decontamination chamber for donning and doffing
- C. Requiring two negative air machines
- D. Being built only in commercial buildings
Answer: B. Adding a decontamination chamber for donning and doffing
Full containment adds a multi-chamber decon unit so workers can don and doff without carrying contamination out of the work area.
- A. A federal regulation enforced by the EPA
- B. An OSHA standard enforced by inspection
- C. A voluntary consensus standard widely treated as the standard of care
- D. A state law in all 50 states
Answer: C. A voluntary consensus standard widely treated as the standard of care
The S520 is voluntary, but insurers, IEPs and courts treat it as the standard of care — which is why deviating from it without documented justification is hard to defend.
- A. A verbal summary from the crew lead
- B. Dated photos and moisture readings taken throughout the job
- C. The final invoice
- D. The biocide product label
Answer: B. Dated photos and moisture readings taken throughout the job
Contemporaneous documentation — conditions, readings, scope, photos, verification — is what separates a defensible file from a narrative written after the fact.
- A. Only a written respiratory protection policy
- B. Fit testing and medical clearance
- C. Replacement every 30 days
- D. Nothing beyond the manufacturer's instructions
Answer: B. Fit testing and medical clearance
A respirator only delivers its rated protection with a proper seal, so fit testing and medical clearance are required for tight-fitting respirators.
- A. Normal building off-gassing
- B. MVOCs from hidden microbial growth
- C. Ozone from an air scrubber
- D. High carbon dioxide
Answer: B. MVOCs from hidden microbial growth
MVOCs — microbial volatile organic compounds — are gases produced by growth. A persistent earthy odor is a reason to investigate further, not to deodorize.
- A. HEPA vacuumed and left in place
- B. Encapsulated with sealer
- C. Removed and discarded
- D. Sprayed with an antimicrobial and dried
Answer: C. Removed and discarded
If a material cannot be reliably cleaned, it leaves the building. Porous materials with actual growth are removed rather than treated in place.
- A. A recommendation you may skip
- B. A mandatory requirement
- C. An optional best practice
- D. A manufacturer's suggestion
Answer: B. A mandatory requirement
'Shall' is mandatory; 'should' is a recommended practice you can deviate from with justification. Exam questions routinely hinge on the difference.
- A. Reducing the containment required
- B. Adding bacterial and pathogenic hazards that escalate PPE and disposal
- C. Allowing porous materials to be cleaned in place
- D. Eliminating the need for HEPA filtration
Answer: B. Adding bacterial and pathogenic hazards that escalate PPE and disposal
Category 3 water is grossly contaminated. It raises PPE requirements and generally means porous materials come out rather than get cleaned.
- A. Building the containment
- B. Independent post-remediation verification
- C. HEPA vacuuming
- D. Removing contaminated drywall
Answer: B. Independent post-remediation verification
Verification should come from an independent party — typically the IEP — to avoid the conflict of interest of clearing your own work.
- A. Because loaded filters move more air
- B. Because airflow drops as filters load with debris
- C. Because manufacturers overstate motor wattage
- D. Because ACH targets fall during a job
Answer: B. Because airflow drops as filters load with debris
A machine's output falls as its HEPA and pre-filters load. Sizing off clean-filter ratings leaves you short of your target ACH by mid-job.
- A. Support the poly walls of a containment
- B. Seal openings such as doors, vents and penetrations
- C. Separate clean tools from dirty tools
- D. Mark the boundary of the work area for occupants
Answer: B. Seal openings such as doors, vents and penetrations
Critical barriers seal the paths air could take out of the work area — doorways, ducts, receptacles and other penetrations.
- A. Outside the building
- B. In the decontamination chamber
- C. At the truck
- D. Anywhere inside the work area
Answer: B. In the decontamination chamber
Doffing happens in the decon chamber, rolling garments inward, so contamination is not carried into clean areas.
- A. Because species identification is impossible
- B. Because all growth is a potential health hazard and removal is the standard response
- C. Because labs cannot test for most genera
- D. Because insurers require species testing
Answer: B. Because all growth is a potential health hazard and removal is the standard response
Identification does not change the removal principle. All mold growth is treated as a potential hazard requiring physical removal.
- A. Air sampling
- B. A visual inspection showing no visible growth, debris or moisture
- C. Surface tape lifts
- D. A signed customer satisfaction form
Answer: B. A visual inspection showing no visible growth, debris or moisture
PRV starts with the visual inspection. Sampling, where the project calls for it, supports the visual result rather than replacing it.
- A. Touching the surface
- B. Taking moisture meter readings and comparing them to a dry standard
- C. Waiting 72 hours after removal
- D. Checking relative humidity in the room
Answer: B. Taking moisture meter readings and comparing them to a dry standard
Meter readings compared against an unaffected dry standard confirm drying goals. Room humidity alone says nothing about the material.
- A. The remediation contractor
- B. The indoor environmental professional
- C. The insurance adjuster
- D. The property manager
Answer: B. The indoor environmental professional
The IEP assesses and writes the protocol; the remediator works to it. Keeping the roles separate is what makes verification meaningful.
- A. Reduces the ACH inside containment
- B. Helps maintain negative pressure and removes filtered air from the structure
- C. Is prohibited under the S520
- D. Eliminates the need for HEPA filtration
Answer: B. Helps maintain negative pressure and removes filtered air from the structure
Exhausting outside the containment — ideally outdoors — is what establishes the pressure differential that keeps spores from migrating.
- A. Marketing
- B. Health, safety and professional responsibility
- C. Insurance billing
- D. Local zoning
Answer: B. Health, safety and professional responsibility
Occupants need to understand hazards, containment boundaries and restrictions. It is part of the professional responsibility the standard describes.
- A. Begin demolition immediately
- B. Identify and correct the moisture source, then set containment before disturbing growth
- C. Fog the room with an antimicrobial
- D. Run an air scrubber for 24 hours and re-inspect
Answer: B. Identify and correct the moisture source, then set containment before disturbing growth
Sequence matters: find the moisture source and establish containment and engineering controls before you disturb Condition 3 growth.
The full bank runs to 200+ questions across every S520 topic. Create a free account to track your scores, or read the IICRC S520 breakdown and AMRT certification guide first.
What's on the IICRC AMRT exam
The IICRC Applied Microbial Remediation Technician (AMRT) exam is a closed-book, multiple-choice test built around the ANSI/IICRC S520 Standard for Professional Mold Remediation. Expect questions across the following domains, in roughly these proportions:
- Conditions & remediation principles (~20%) — Condition 1/2/3 classification, the source-removal principle, returning a space to normal fungal ecology, and the role of the Indoor Environmental Professional (IEP).
- Mold biology & health effects (~15%) — spores, hyphae, and mycelium; the moisture/food/temperature requirements for growth; common indoor molds; and allergenic, pathogenic, and toxigenic effects.
- Containment & engineering controls (~20%) — negative pressure, HEPA filtration, air changes per hour, source vs. full containment, decontamination chambers, and negative air machine (NAM) sizing.
- PPE (~15%) — N95, half-face, full-face, and PAPR respirators; assigned protection factors; fit testing; protective clothing; and PPE selection by Condition level.
- Remediation methods & cleaning (~15%) — HEPA vacuuming, damp wiping, abrasive methods, EPA-registered antimicrobials, and removing porous vs. non-porous vs. semi-porous materials.
- Verification & documentation (~15%) — post-remediation verification (PRV), clearance sampling, moisture-source correction, work plans, and daily logs.
How our practice exams are built
Every question in our bank is written in-house to cover the current mold remediation standard of care — not regurgitated from old test dumps, and none are actual IICRC exam items. We build them around the exam material in four ways:
- Question format. Four-option multiple choice, single best answer, scenario-based wording — the same style IICRC uses.
- Topic mix. The Exam Simulator weights its questions to the domains above, so a strong simulator score reflects readiness across the whole standard, not just one chapter.
- Timing. The simulator runs on a timer with no backtracking — once you submit an answer, you commit.
- Explanations cite the standard. Every answer includes the S520 reference and the reasoning, so you learn the why instead of memorizing the what.
Pair the simulator with our spaced-repetition flashcards, the containment and NAM-sizing tools, and the module study guides for the same workflow techs use to pass on the first try.
Exam format and how the simulator works
- Official exam format: The IICRC sets the number of questions, the time limit and the passing score; confirm current details when you register for the exam — iicrc.org.
- On this site: the timed simulator runs a full-length set against a countdown, with no backtracking once an answer is submitted.
- Where people lose points: containment and engineering-control details, and Condition 1/2/3 distinctions.
- Retake policy: IICRC allows retakes; check with your approved school for fees and waiting periods.
Disclaimer: AMRTTraining.com is an independent study resource and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or operated by the IICRC. Practice questions are written from publicly available standards and do not reproduce the proctored exam.
Practice by topic
Eight free 10-question quizzes, one per AMRT exam domain. No login and no repeats of the questions above — see the full list on the practice index.
AMRT Practice Quiz: S520 Conditions 1, 2 & 3
10 questions · free
Conditions 1/2/3, normal fungal ecology, the IEP role and the goal of remediation.
AMRT Practice Quiz: Containment & Negative Air
10 questions · free
Containment types, negative pressure, HEPA, ACH and negative air machine sizing.
AMRT Practice Quiz: PPE & Respiratory Safety
10 questions · free
Respirator selection, APFs, fit testing, medical clearance, coveralls and doffing.
AMRT Practice Quiz: Mold Biology & Microbiology
10 questions · free
Growth requirements, spores and hyphae, common genera, mycotoxins, MVOCs and health effects.
AMRT Practice Quiz: Category 3 Water & Sewage
10 questions · free
Water Categories 1-3, sewage losses, material disposal decisions and worker protection.
AMRT Practice Quiz: Cleaning & Removal Methods
10 questions · free
Source removal, HEPA vacuuming, damp wiping, abrasive methods, encapsulants and biocides.
AMRT Practice Quiz: PRV & the IEP
10 questions · free
Visual verification, clearance sampling, moisture checks, IEP independence and failed clearance.
AMRT Practice Quiz: Documentation & Scope
10 questions · free
Work plans, daily logs, photos, changed conditions, client refusals and final reports.